03-25-2021, 11:24 AM
(03-25-2021, 11:12 AM)Dill Wrote: I guess I need a little help here.
Hopefully I can provide it.
Quote:If 7% commit 51% of the murders, and Blacks are not inherently violent,
I certainly don't believe that they are.
Quote:then what are the "differing circumstances" that account for the difference here?
Oh wow, that's a question that would require far more than even your archetypal response. Suffice to say they are many and varied.
Quote:How are those circumstances separated from the legacy of white supremacy?
Some of them are not, many, if not most of them are. In fact we have a very easy way to empirically prove that "white supremacy" or it's "legacy" is not the main driving factor. We can do so by looking for similar patterns in other minority communities. Americans of Hispanic descent commit these crimes at or just slightly above their percentage of the population. Asians are very much underrepresented.
Now, I can already hear you saying that those communities, while certainly marginalized to varying degrees by this country, did not experience the same level of animus and discrimination that Black people do/did. This would be a fair, and perfectly true, point. To counter it we need only look at the one ethnic minority treated even more poorly in our country's history than Black people, Native Americans. They are slightly over represented in these categories, but nothing close to on the same scale. (Anyone looking for raw data on this need only check my link in the post above.
Consequently, we can conclude rather comfortably, that while white supremacy, or it's "legacy" is absolutely a contributing factor, it can in no way be used to explain the enormous discrepancy in the commissions of violent crime within the black community. It's absolutely a factor, but the raw data just doesn't lend itself to it being the major contributor, at all.
So then, please allow me to point the mic in the other direction and ask the same of you. Why do you think there is this enormous statistical discrepancy?
