07-02-2015, 01:15 PM
(07-02-2015, 12:58 PM)PhilHos Wrote: Considering that the prevailing suggested date of Zoroaster's birth is considered to be the 6th Century BC, I find it hard to believe that it was he that had an effect on Judaism and not the other way around (at least, when it comes to the similarities between the 2).
The archaeological evidence suggests a significant shift in the theology of the Semitic people during the Second Temple Period. Early Semitic theology held a pantheon of deities with each nation having a corresponding deity. Elohim was the deity of the Semitic people, the Israelites, and was the most powerful. While Elohim was the deity worshiped almost exclusively by them, there was the existence of multiple deities. When they returned from their exile and the Second Temple period happened, the archaeological evidence shows a loss of any mention of other deities. They disappear. So during their time away the religion transformed into Judaism from the ancient Semitic religion.
Now, I don't know what the majority of scholars say in regards to Zoroaster's time frame because I've seen many conflicting opinions on it ranging from 1700 to 500 BCE. I don't know what the majority opinion is on that. There is a lot of archaeological evidence suggesting, however, that there was a monotheistic religion in existence in Persia before the exile of the Israelites into Babylon where there is also evidence of this Persian religion having a presence. Whether this was a proto-Zoroastrianism or what, hard to say, but it was there.
So, when combined with the exile to Babylon and the theological shift of the Israelites upon their return, the opinion has come about to be that this religion influenced the ancient Semitic religion into Second Temple Judaism.
