04-16-2018, 06:19 PM
(04-16-2018, 05:48 PM)GMDino Wrote: It was an article on what attorney-client privilege means.
Here is what they referenced:
https://jenner.com//system/assets/assets/10391/original/2017-Jenner%20and%20Block%20Attorney-Client%20Privilege%20Handbook.pdf
The article I read is from a liberal site but here is their explanation of the above legalese:
(All bold emphasis that of the author.)
I guess that helps, but I'm still a little cloudy like on the part where the client has to invoke privilege. I get where the client has to waive it, but I don't have to go around telling any lawyer I've ever used not to talk about something. I pretty much assumed it's invoked until I say otherwise.
And in the Stormy Daniels situation, if there is no client, then what are they looking for? As I understood it, they were looking for him illegally paying her off with his own money. If they accept the premise that their is no client, then there is no potential crime.
I'm not arguing, that's just where I'm fuzzy.
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