06-11-2018, 06:48 PM
(06-11-2018, 12:16 PM)fredtoast Wrote: Then why did he say this? Jim Crow laws were in effect until at least 1965.
"What do slavery and Jim Crow have to do with modern-day blacks, who experienced neither? "
There are a lot of blacks alive today who suffered under Jim Crow laws.
I would think he meant that most of the grievances being advanced by people are being advanced by people who did not directly experience them. If you use the late 60's as an extreme for the end of segregation than people in their 50's and above would have been directly affected by them. Of course, this doesn't mean that racism, institutionalized or at the personal level, ceased to exist at that time. No one, especially the article, is claiming that.
I did notice you glossed over getting your ass handed to you on your "bet". I'm wonder if you'll do it again when you respond to this post.
