07-25-2018, 05:20 PM
(07-25-2018, 04:03 PM)michaelsean Wrote: Those are the tax rates. I'm asking about percentage of taxes paid as that would indicate burden. This one only goes back to 1979, but from there the tax burden has decreased on the lower earners and increased on the higher earners.
https://www.taxpolicycenter.org/statistics/shares-federal-tax-liabilities-all-households
Edit: This doesn't account for rate of increase income, but the lower ends are not carrying a higher burden of the taxes. I think the bottom 40% or something like that actually pay an effective rate of zero.
You don't know how to look at the numbers.
For example from 1979 to 2004 the income of the top 1% increased 167% while their share of income tax only increased 68% (14.1 to 23.7)
They are paying more because their income has increased much more than everyone else. But when you look at the percentage of increase in their income it is much greater than their increase in percentage of the tax liability. So dollar or dollar they are paying a lower percentage than they were in 1979.
The "burden" has shifted because the share of income has shifted, but the "Burden" for the top 1% has not grown as much as their increase in income.
