05-13-2016, 11:26 AM
(05-13-2016, 11:08 AM)Brownshoe Wrote: Then why isn't there ONE case where someone got consent by a drunk person and then was convicted of rape? When he's saying "Drunk means no." that doesn't mean they can't give consent. It's just saying that the default is "no", and it can be changed if the other person gives consent. He didn't say "Drunk means they can't give consent". If "Drunk means no" was meaning they can't give consent then there would be at LEAST 1 case supporting that claim.
It's the case I quoted.
The guy said she was drunk but said yes. She doesn't remember. She's passed out when they are discovered. He's convicted.
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