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Philosophy Question from the 1600's
#23
(05-24-2016, 07:01 PM)Nebuchadnezzar Wrote: "I see!" said the blind man to his deaf and dumb wife.

But, yes, if they can at least see shapes, if they were to gain sight, they would be able to distinguish the difference. How could they not?

Because they've never 'seen' the shape before, being blind from birth. Having felt the shapes, what kind, if any, image would/could they have in their brain if they've never seen it before?

Now, being able to see it, but not touch it for recognition, can they distinguish by sight only?

P.S. I did not and will not vote!





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RE: Philosophy Question from the 1600's - rfaulk34 - 05-24-2016, 08:20 PM

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