07-19-2016, 11:35 AM
(07-19-2016, 11:29 AM)fredtoast Wrote: Because the '07 study controlled for "precinct variability and race-specific estimates of crime participation."
Why don't you try educating yourself instead of just sticking your head in the ground and saying "I don't see anything wrong." I keep answering every question you post by doing research and you just close your eyes and refuse to even look at the problem.
I guess ignorance really is bliss.
You didn't post an 07 study.
Maybe you should stop jumping to conclusions, and start looking at things objectively. If there's a high crime rate area, you know what there's going to be more of? policing. Just because there is more policing in black neighborhoods doesn't mean that the police are targeting black people. It just means that they are targeting high crime rate areas.
The other study the police either had probable cause or the person gave consent to search. How is that targeting minorities if they gave consent to the search or the police had probable cause?
![[Image: 4CV0TeR.png]](https://i.imgur.com/4CV0TeR.png)
