04-22-2017, 08:15 PM
(04-22-2017, 08:01 PM)THE Bigzoman Wrote: Probably because of the mountains of work showing this relationship to be true for other goods.
Again, most economists already hold it to be true barring abnormal phenomena. So yes, the onus would be on economists to show that this isn't the case and explain why; what makes healthcare goods/services different?
If there isn't an increase in demand then it is impossible for a nonexistent increase in demand to affect the costs of anything.
So your theory may apply if there is an increased demand, but you haven't shown there is one.
You're applying your "theory" to a guess. Then claiming it is true. And expect other people to prove your guess wrong.
How would someone prove your assumption wrong? By first establishing if there was or wasn't an increase in demand. Which is what I've asked you to show, but you keep evading.
This is so obvious it should stick out like a sore thumb.
