05-16-2019, 01:49 PM
(05-16-2019, 09:05 AM)Benton Wrote: No
(05-16-2019, 09:07 AM)BmorePat87 Wrote: Not even close.Seems in both instances it's the mother's desire to handicap the child because she wants to.
He challenged the position of a woman's ownership over her body by asking if women should be able to have a surgery that removes the limbs of the fetus. When that was dismissed as an absurd scenario that does not exist, he used the example of a deaf family using a deaf surrogate to increase the likelihood of having a deaf child as proof that this would occur.
The second scenario has nothing to do with a woman's ownership of her body.
While I do not know why anyone would wish that on a child, it certainly isn't anywhere close to having surgery to cut the limbs off a fetus nor does it do anything to challenge the argument against a woman's ownership of her body.
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