09-08-2020, 04:27 PM
(09-08-2020, 04:04 PM)fredtoast Wrote: No. There has to be evidence of an intent to intimidate or evidence that a "reasonable person" would have felt intimidated.
Would a reasonable person be intimidated by protected speech?
Quote:Dozens of people lived all around the McCloskey's and none of them felt intimidated. Hard to claim the McCloskey's were the only reasonable people in the entire neighbirhood. Especially with all the evidence that they are extreme assholes and pretty much the opposite of "reasonable" people.
I doubt the first part of that statement is entirely true. Also, "assholes" are just as subject to being intimidated as anyone else.