03-12-2018, 12:59 PM
(03-12-2018, 12:38 PM)Au165 Wrote: No I am saying that classifying any amendment beyond what was written originally to be included as original intent is stretching it. By the very use of the word original it references what was there first not what was subsequently changed to what was there first. There can be the intent of whoever wrote later amendments but normally original intent, in my experience, is left to those original amendments because it is an exercise in history and linguistics to what the words on the paper actually meant.
Side note: This is now my third time asking you this question, If we amended the constitution to end amendments would that be original intent?
Yes.
Why do you ignore the amendment process as something they wrote originally? Do you think original intent people are against the bill of rights? Do you think amending the constitution goes against their intent?
“History teaches that grave threats to liberty often come in times of urgency, when constitutional rights seem too extravagant to endure.”-Thurgood Marshall
![[Image: 4CV0TeR.png]](https://i.imgur.com/4CV0TeR.png)
