Freedom of press.

[Dill]

(03-05-2017, 08:22 PM)Sociopathicsteelerfan Wrote: In the long run, they absolutely did.  Support for the NSDAP was on the wain.  Again, their high water mark only encompassed around 1/3 of voters. Hardly earth shattering.  Consider that the Dems are whining about Trump winning the presidency with a far larger share of the vote and then realize how weak your argument is.

Please, you're treating the Weimar government like the US two party system.

33% of the popular vote in Nov. '32 and then 43% in March '33 would not be "earth shattering" in the U.S., but it was decisive in Germany's parliamentary government in 1932-33.

My point is that if Nazis get 43-44% of the vote then they are the primary force in the Reichstag with the power to acquire more power. Von Papen didn't give them 43+% of the popular vote.  Other parties, such as the SPD, were unable to persuade enough Germans to vote for them against the Nazis--and therefore, on your terms, have only themselves to blame for the Nazi rise to power. 

You apparently assume that if the Nazis did not win a majority of the vote, American-style, then my point is somehow nullified because 33 or 43% would not be "earth shattering" in a US election. Winning over "far more people than they lost" is not the criterion when 43% makes your party THE plurality.

Why not simply back away from the claim that people have only themselves to blame for bad leaders rather than attempt these rhetorical projections and somersaults?  Don't say that you really said something else, or that your assertion doesn't apply to Weimar Germany or the Ante-Bellum South, or that election violence somehow vitiates political arguments made long before elections so you are off the hook for victim-blaming. 

Can you respond in a more focused manner? Don't flail about 100% refuting points that have not been made and projecting your own "boring" points on to me etc.